Is it possible for a product to be used FOR a purpose while also, simultaneously, being used for its opposite purpose?
Just because of how my brain works, and the fact that I like to mess with my colleagues' heads, I often initiate conversations with my partner at work just to watch the brain squirm. So it is with this topic:
CP: What is the definition of "insomnia"?
CP's Partner: Insomnia is defined as "an inability to sleep".
CP: Precisely. Now, if I received two prescriptions for Ambien, and labeled them as follows, could they both be considered correct?
1. Take 1 tablet at bedtime for sleep.
2. Take 1 tablet at bedtime for insomnia.
CP: Another example would be any medication prescribed for blood pressure:
"Take 1 tablet once a day for blood pressure."
Does this mean that without this medication, the patient would have NO blood pressure?
CPP: Please stop. You know what they mean.
CP: Yes. They mean to treat High Blood Pressure. But that is not how the label reads. It simply says "FOR blood pressure."
CPP: Point conceded.
CP: I have another one for you.
CPP: What about condoms?
CP: Thinking about the Ambien examples, focus on these directions:
1. Use 1 condom for babies.
2. Use 1 condom for prevention of babies.
CPP: But . . .
CPP: That makes by head hurt. Please stop.
CP: Nope. I'm on a roll now. I have one more.
CPP: I feel sorry for your family. They have to live with you.
CPP: Okay. Last one. Get it over with. What about diarrhea?
CP: If a patient asks for a medication for diarrhea, what do you recommend?
1. Take 1 tablet of Imodium for diarrhea. or
2. Take 1 bottle of Golytely for diarrhea.
One treats it and one causes it. They cannot both be correct, yet the products would be labeled correctly if I put "for diarrhea" on each.
CPP: Does your brain ever cramp? What do you feed the chipmunk running on the wheel in there? Red Bull and Starbuck's?